Daily Current Affairs (MCQ's) | 18-08-2022

Daily Current Affairs (MCQ's) | 18-08-2022

Daily Current Affairs (MCQ's) | 18-08-2022

Q1. Consider the following statements:

  1. NO2 comes mainly from the burning of fuels in older vehicles, power plants, industrial facilities and residential cooking and heating.
  2. Complete combustion of fuel results in higher NOx (nitrogen oxides) whereas incomplete combustion sees other kinds of emissions.

Which of the above statements are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

 

Answer (c)

Explanation:

‘Delhi’s PM2.5 levels worst in the world’

  • A global analysis of air quality found that Indian cities while recording particulate matter emissions (PM2.5) that are among the highest in the world, do relatively better on nitrogen dioxide (NO2) emissions.
  • The report, Air Quality and Health in Cities, released by U.S.-based Health Effects Institute, analyses pollution and global health effects for more than 7,000 cities around the world, focusing on two of the most harmful pollutants - fine particulate matter (PM2.5) and nitrogen dioxide (NO2).
  • The report, using data from 2010 to 2019, found that global patterns for exposures to the two key air pollutants were “strikingly different. ”
  • While exposures to PM2.5 pollution tend to be higher in cities located in low- and middle-income countries, exposure to NO2 is high across cities in high-income as well as low- and middle-income countries.
  • Delhi and Kolkata were ranked first and second in the list of top 10 most polluted cities when 5 levels were compared, with Delhi and Kolkata reporting an average annual exposure of (relative to population) of 110 ug/m3 and 84 ug/m3 respectively. ug/m3 refers to microgram per cubic metre.

Better in NO2 pollution:

  • However no Indian city appeared in the list of top 10 – or even top 20 - polluted cities when N02 levels were compared. This list saw Shanghai at the top with an average annual exposure of 41 ug/m3. Average NO2 levels for Delhi, Kolkata and Mumbai, according to the report, ranged from 20-30 ug/m3.
  • NO2 comes mainly from the burning of fuels in older vehicles, power plants, industrial facilities and residential cooking and heating.
  • As city residents tend to live closer to busy roads with dense traffic, they are often exposed to higher NO2 pollution than residents of rural areas.
  • In 2019, 86% of the more than 7,000 cities analysed in the report exceeded the WHO’s 10 ug/m3 guideline for NO2, impacting about 6 billion people.
  • This paradoxical situation in India was likely due to the relatively lower adoption of high-efficiency engine Complete combustion of fuel results in higher NOx (nitrogen oxides) whereas incomplete combustion sees other kinds of emissions.
  • Due to their highly reactive nature, nitrogen oxides also contributed to the formation of other pollutants, including ozone and particulate NO2 also has a shorter lifetime compared with PM2.5 and other air pollutants.
  • As a result, NO2 levels show very high variability in space and time — levels can vary significantly even across a few In comparison, PM2.5 levels tend to show less spatial variation.

Q2. The Constitution mandates that States should ensure the welfare of the people, “minimise inequalities in income and endeavour to eliminate inequalities in status, facilities and opportunities, not only amongst individuals but also amongst groups of people residing in different areas or engaged in different vocations”. It is mandated in the following article of the constitution

  1. Article 58
  2. Article 21
  3. Article 23
  4. Article 38

Answer (d)

Explanation:

Voters not looking for freebies: SC

  • Voters, if given a chance, will prefer to earn a dignified earning through welfare schemes such as the MGNREGA and create public assets in rural India. Freebies do not always decide the outcome of elections for political parties, the Supreme Court said.
  • The court was hearing a petition to curb the practice of offering or distributing “irrational freebies” at the cost of public money, especially in debt-ridden States during the run-up to elections.
  • The court said its primary concern is about “the right way of spending public money”. The court indicated that promises of freebies come at a cost to the public exchequer.

Public welfare: 

  • The court is dealing with rival contentions raised in the case. On the one hand, the contention is that freebies are a waste of public money and a sure road to economic doom for the country, on the other, they are incentives and schemes to ensure public welfare.
  • “But the question is what exactly qualifies as a ‘valid promise’? Can the promise of subsidy on power, seeds and fertilizers to small and marginal farmers, free health care and drinking water be considered freebies? Can we treat promises of consumer products, and electronics free of cost for all as a welfare measure?” the court asked.

Article 38 of the Constitution

  • Chief Justice Ramana said freebies should not be confused with welfare schemes introduced by States. The CJI said Article 38 of the Constitution mandates that States should ensure the welfare of the people, “minimise inequalities in income and endeavour to eliminate inequalities in status, facilities and opportunities, not only amongst individuals but also amongst groups of people residing in different areas or engaged in different vocations”.
  • “You cannot prevent a political party or an individual from making promises that are aimed at fulfilling this constitutional mandate if elected to power,” the Chief Justice observed.
  • Tamilnadu submitted that the Constitution empowered States to promulgate welfare The term ‘freebies’ cannot be interpreted to restrict States’ competence to provide welfare.

Q3. Consider the following statements

  1. Due to global warming, any change in the surface air temperature and the net radiation balance tends to produce larger changes at the north and south poles
  2. Reduced ice around arctic can lead to extreme rainfall events in the latter half of the monsoons — in September and October

Which of the above statements are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer (c)

Explanation:

  • Recently, Finnish Meteorological Institute researchers published their study in the Communications Earth & Environment journal, concluding that the Arctic is heating four times faster than the rest of the planet.
  • Due to global warming, any change in the surface air temperature and the net radiation balance tends to produce larger changes at the north and south poles. These changes are more pronounced at the northern latitudes and are known as the Arctic amplification.
  • In May 2021, the Arctic Monitoring and Assessment Programme warned that the Arctic has warmed three times quicker than the planet
  • For several years, the Greenland ice sheet has been melting at an alarming rate. Between July 15 and 17, 2022, the Greenland ice sheet saw a sharp spike in the rate and extent of melting.
  • A study by a group of Indian and Norwegian scientists has found that the reduced sea ice in the Barents-Kara sea region can lead to extreme rainfall events in the latter half of the monsoons, in September and October

Arctic amplification and causes:

  • While climate changes are witnessed across the planet, any change in the surface air temperature and the net radiation balance tend to produce larger changes at the north and south This phenomenon is known as polar amplification; these changes are more pronounced at the northern latitudes and are known as Arctic amplification.
  • Among the many global warming-driven causes for this amplification, the ice-albedo feedback, lapse rate feedback, water vapour feedback and ocean heat transport are the primary causes.

The consequences of Arctic warming:

  • The warming of the Arctic Ocean and the seas in the region, the acidification of water, and changes in the salinity levels, are impacting the biodiversity, including the marine species and the dependent species.
  • The warming is also increasing the incidence of rainfall which is affecting the availability and accessibility of lichens to the reindeer. The Arctic amplification is causing widespread starvation and death among the Arctic fauna.
  • The permafrost in the Arctic is thawing and in turn releasing carbon and methane which are among the major greenhouse gases responsible for global warming.
  • Experts fear that the thaw and the melt will also release the long- dormant bacteria and viruses that were trapped in the permafrost and can potentially give rise to diseases.

The impact on India:

  • In recent years, scientists have pondered over the impact the changing Arctic can have on the monsoons in the The link between the two is growing in importance due to the extreme weather events the country faces, and the heavy reliance on rainfall for water and food security.
  • A study titled ‘A possible relation between Arctic sea ice and late season Indian Summer Monsoon Rainfall extremes’ published in 2021 by a group of Indian and Norwegian scientists found that the reduced sea ice in the Barents-Kara sea region can lead to extreme rainfall events in the latter half of the monsoons — in September and October.
  • According to the World Meteorological Organization’s report,‘State of Global Climate in 2021’, the sea level along the Indian coast is rising faster than the global average rate.
  • One of the primary reasons for this rise is the melting of sea ice in the polar regions, especially the Arctic. The Arctic amplification furthers the idea that “what happens in the Arctic does not remain in the Arctic” and can substantially affect tropical processes far south.

Q4. Consider the following statement about the Regulating Act,1773

  1. It was the first step taken by the British Government to control and regulate the affairs of East India Company in India
  2. This act made a distinction between the commercial and political activities of the East India Company
  3. It prohibited the servants of the Company from engaging in any private trade

Which of the above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer (c)

Explanation:

The Regulating Act,1773: Key Features

The Regulating Act of 1773 was of great constitutional importance as it was the first step taken by the British Government to control and regulate the affairs of East India Company in India and also recognised the political and administrative functions of the Company for the first time.

Key Features of the Regulating Act of 1773

  1. It designated the Governor-General of Bengal and created an Executive Council of four members to assist Lord Warren Hastings was the first Governor-General of Bengal.
  2. Governors of Bombay and Madras presidencies subordinate to the Governor-general of Bengal.
  3. It provided for the establishment of a Supreme Court at Calcutta (1774) with one Chief Justice and three other Judges.
  4. It prohibited the servants of the Company from engaging in any private trade or accepting presents or bribes from the natives.

Pitt ' s India Act 1784 made a distinction between the commercial and political activities of the East India Company.

Q5. Which of the following is not a feature of the Election system in India?

  1. Universal Adult Franchise and Secret Voting
  2. Communal reservation
  3. Reservation of seats in the legislature for the members of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes

Select the answer from codes given below

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer (c)

Explanation:

Universal adult franchise systems of voting: In India, universal adult franchise system of voting is followed which means every citizen of age above 18 years has given right to vote irrespective of his / her caste, colour, creed, sex, religion or place of birth.

Section 94 of the Representation of People Act (RPA) 1951 upholds the privilege of the voters to maintain confidentiality about their choice of the vote.

In India, the constituencies were distributed according to the population as well as the geographic conditions. Some of the constituencies are reserved for Scheduled caste and also Scheduled Tribe candidates. Even on the slopes of the mountain, in hilly areas, the constituencies are distributed. There is no communal reservation in India.

Q6. Consider the following statements about the 73rd Amendment Act 1992

  1. There should be reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes/ Scheduled Tribes and for women in Panchayats up to one-third seats
  2. The minimum age for contesting elections to the Panchayati Raj institutions be twenty-one years

Which of the above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer (b)

Explanation:

The 73rd Amendment to the Constitution enacted in 1992 added a new part- IX to the Constitution. It also added a new XI schedule containing a list of 29 functional items for Panchayats and made statutory provisions for the establishment, empowerment and functioning of Panchayati Raj institutions. Some provisions of this amendment are binding on the States, while others have been left to be decided by respective State Legislatures at their discretion.

The salient features of this amendment are as follows:

  1. Organization of Gram Sabhas;
  2. Creation of a three-tier Panchayati Raj Structure at the District (Zila), Block and Village levels;
  3. Almost all posts, at all levels, to be filled by direct elections, The post of Chairman at the District and Block levels should be filled by indirect election;
  4. The minimum age for contesting elections to the Panchayati Raj institutions be twenty-one years;
  5. There should be reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes/ Scheduled Tribes in Panchayats, in proportion to their population, and for women in Panchayats up to one-third seats;
  6. State Election Commission to be set up in each State to conduct elections to Panchayati Raj institutions;
  7. The tenure of Panchayati Raj institutions in five years, if dissolved earlier, fresh elections to be held within six months; and
  8. A State Finance Commission is to be set up in each state every five years.